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Old August 31st, 2008, 09:27 PM   #61
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What if someone believes that you have to use up something to combine two things. What if it takes 1 "." to add two together? Therefore ".." + ".." = "..."
Then we would be talking about a different definition of "+".
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Old August 31st, 2008, 09:30 PM   #62
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Wouldn't changing the standard change the definition?
Then 2+2 may not equal 4 because 2 dosen't equal what was defined, or standardized as 2.

No need to respond I was just bored and wanted to post something.
Yes, it would, and thus it would no longer be what we call "2" and the formula would no longer apply. But the concept of taking .. and putting them with .. to get .... would

I'm bored also.
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Old August 31st, 2008, 09:55 PM   #63
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Yes, it would, and thus it would no longer be what we call "2" and the formula would no longer apply. But the concept of taking .. and putting them with .. to get .... would

I'm bored also.
WOW I thought I confused myself but now!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Also you better look at the begining of that last post, it began "yes" indicating agreement with Mr Toes.

Be careful.

You'll be buying guns, hunting, taking your kids to church, stay married to one woman your whole life. All kinds of bad stuff.
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Old August 31st, 2008, 11:09 PM   #64
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WOW I thought I confused myself but now!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Also you better look at the begining of that last post, it began "yes" indicating agreement with Mr Toes.

Be careful.

You'll be buying guns, hunting, taking your kids to church, stay married to one woman your whole life. All kinds of bad stuff.
to late for that one.
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Old August 31st, 2008, 11:14 PM   #65
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math is so much fun to argue about.
especially when you can prove that 1=0 with 'mathematics'
mmmmm, good times.
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Old August 31st, 2008, 11:19 PM   #66
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Originally Posted by Monkeyevil View Post
.999 repeating ~= 1 as well
Yes, it can be proven that 0.9999 repeating forever =1.
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Old August 31st, 2008, 11:19 PM   #67
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math is so much fun to argue about.
especially when you can prove that 1=0 with 'mathematics'
mmmmm, good times.
I've yet to see proof of that,
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Old August 31st, 2008, 11:42 PM   #68
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I've yet to see proof of that,
its just a trick, there are lots of 'invalid' proofs. wikipedia has a pretty good array of them http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/False_proof
math is a big joke really, until its physically proven in the end through experimentation
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Old September 2nd, 2008, 08:08 AM   #69
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I've always been a fan of taking that 1 mm^3 = 1 mL conversion.

With that you can find out how many gallons are in a lightyear.
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