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Old June 26th, 2013, 05:21 PM   #43
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Originally Posted by wolverine 00 xj View Post
Sorry, but you're going to have to prove that one to me, not just state it like it's self-evident. The fact is that laws against, for example, white and blacks marrying were based on a recognition of the biological basis of marriage - that it produces children (mixed race children). They were not laws that tried to alter the fundamental basis of marriage as between man and woman - they recognized it and tried to keep races apart to avoid mixed race children. That is not a valid comparison at all with laws that limit marriage to man and woman.

"Legalizing gay marriage will lead to legalizing the marriage of any number of people and any thing animal vegetable or mineral getting married."

You can ridicule my statement, but it's just a fact that places that have legalized same-sex "marriage" are moving toward recognizing, for example, "group marriage."

Link: "Just one week after the passage of gay ‘marriage’ legislation in New Zealand, it has been revealed that a group has been formed whose goal is to have group marriages recognized in law."
What if a woman no longer has a uterus due to a disease? Or what if a man is infertile? Should he or she not be allowed to marry because they can't produce children?
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